I can't answer that question with anything but extrapolation, but heck, I'm a lawyer, extrapolating and drawing inferences is what we _do_. So, some random considerations:
I suspect that would be considered off-label use, which may discourage some doctors. (I'm not very familiar with this area and welcome comments.)
A doctor who was aware that there's no evidence that the drug works better for African-Americans, might prescribe the two generic drugs in the same combination if they were indicated for your condition.
And then there's the common human tendency to like easy categories and flow-charts and the like, which I think would be a factor reducing the likelihood that you would be prescribed BiDil.
I'm sure there are more things I'm not thinking of.
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timeasmymeasure
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Date: 2007-08-08 02:28 am (UTC)I suspect that would be considered off-label use, which may discourage some doctors. (I'm not very familiar with this area and welcome comments.)
A doctor who was aware that there's no evidence that the drug works better for African-Americans, might prescribe the two generic drugs in the same combination if they were indicated for your condition.
And then there's the common human tendency to like easy categories and flow-charts and the like, which I think would be a factor reducing the likelihood that you would be prescribed BiDil.
I'm sure there are more things I'm not thinking of.